I posted this earlier, but here's the short version. I am so mad about this.
After foreclosing on a family's home, the lender can come after them for the deficiency between the home value and what's owed, except in a handful of states (and believe me they're working to close this "loophole," I'm talking to you, Arizona!).
What does that mean? Zero risk for the mortgage lender. You borrow money, put house up for collateral, and it doesn't matter one bit what the market does.
Scenario: person buys $300,000 home with 15% down -- can't quite make the 20%, say -- puts down $45K, gets mortgage for $255,000.
Person loses job, gets sick, whatever -- say they've paid the principal down to $250K.
Buyer can't make payments, lender forecloses. Somehow, the "loan modification process" the buyer tried to go through didn't work, the lender didn't agree the person needed/deserved modification. What a surprise. ;)
Anyhow: market is in the tank, says lender -- although it doesn't matter, same method in a bull market -- so lender puts house up for public auction for $150K. It sells. Lender pockets money. Then lender files in court against the old buyer for a judgment for the remaining $100K -- and in most states, gets it.
Lender then sells right to collect said $100K to a collection agency for say $20K, or less. Collection agency hounds buyer, probably into bankruptcy.
But wait, you say, there's, finally, a place where the lender loses! $20K instead of $100K!!
Not quite. Remember that PMI/LMI you've been paying, since you didn't quite have 20% down to get started? Mortgage insurance. But despite the fact that you were paying it, the insurance wasn't for you. It was for the lender.
Who now collects on the mortgage insurance policy. And you better believe they're double-dipping if they possibly can, to cover fees they pretty much set for themselves.