LAWYERS, I have been asking this question to a lot of DU'ers. [View All]

[dotymed]

Hopefully, we have a lawyer here who can explain this to me.
The SCOTUS, in the 1800's, decided against giving corporations
"person hood", thereby requiring that all
corporations continue to obtain charters proving their public
worth. A bribed (I assume) court recorder, purposefully
recorded that decision falsely. He/she said that the SCOTUS
had granted the status of "person hood" on
corporations. Our laws clearly state that no matter how a
court decision is recorded, the original decision is the
actual law. How did corporations get the status of people,
with inalienable rights and all of the protections reserved
for humans? Just as often happened in America's history,
corporations lied, and suddenly this becomes the "law of
the land?" 
Can Americans, at this late date, demand that the original
law, as determined by the SCOTUS, be upheld? It is actually
the law. If we can enforce the real law, we have a chance to
reclaim our government. How do lies become treated as laws?
The same thing happened with the SCOTUS decision that no
person can be taxed on their personal labor, yet the IRS will
jail you if you subscribe to the law. America has obviously
become a Fascist government. Can't the ACLU or President Obama
demand that since we are (were) a country of laws, we have to
abide by these historic decisions? How about a non-violent(on
our part), perpetual demonstration, demanding the return to
the letter of the law? Maybe some education for citizens,
since, unfortunately Reagan conveniently repealed the FAIRNESS
DOCTRINE and our citizens have been raised on revisionist
history. How can the government deny us, especially in the
international community, since our own Supreme Judiciary
passed these laws? Please,someone, hopefully an intelligent
Constitutional lawyer explain this to me/us. A country of
laws? Let's use that to regain our freedom.